CySA+

Here you have the best CompTIA CS0-003 practice exam questions

  • You have 240 total questions to study from
  • Each page has 5 questions, making a total of 48 pages
  • You can navigate through the pages using the buttons at the bottom
  • This questions were last updated on October 17, 2024

Efficient Study Guide

We make emphasis on efficient preparation, and this study guide is the outcome of insane research and continuous improvement. Whether it's your first certification or just another one for your collection, this guide is here to help you pass the CySA+ exam with top scores. Passing a certification exam has never been easy, but the important thing is to move in the right direction, and with this guide we can assure you that you will. Our content is updated with the latest exam changes and is used by thousands of professionals who successfully achieve their goals. Plus, you'll be part of a community ready to support you every step of the way. If you have questions, feel free to leave a comment and join the conversation - you're very close to achieving your goal and we're here to help!

CompTIA CS0-003 Real Questions from Exam

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Each exam is different: some cover more topics, others less. The objectives of the exam define what knowledge you need to master and why it is important. It is essential to know these objectives before attempting to take the exam. You can find them on the provider's official site, where they will clearly indicate which topics to study. Of course, at Examice we take each of these objectives into account when designing our questions, in order to offer you a study experience as close as possible to the real exam.

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Question 1 of 240

A recent zero-day vulnerability is being actively exploited, requires no user interaction or privilege escalation, and has a significant impact to confidentiality and integrity but not to availability. Which of the following CVE metrics would be most accurate for this zero-day threat?

    Correct Answer: A

    A recent zero-day vulnerability that is actively exploited, requires no user interaction (UI:N) or privilege escalation (PR:N), and significantly impacts confidentiality (C:H) and integrity (I:K) but not availability indicates a high-severity threat. Assessing the key metrics: Attack Vector (AV:N) should be Network, indicating remote exploitability, and Attack Complexity (AC:L) should be Low, given the ease of exploitation. Scope (S:U) remains unchanged, affecting information without propagating. The significant impact on confidentiality and integrity without affecting availability aligns with option A, which accurately captures these criteria.

Question 2 of 240

Which of the following tools would work best to prevent the exposure of PII outside of an organization?

    Correct Answer: D

    Data Loss Prevention (DLP) tools are specifically designed to identify, monitor, and protect sensitive data, such as Personally Identifiable Information (PII), to prevent unauthorized access or transfer outside of an organization. DLP solutions enforce policies to detect and block the transmission of sensitive data through various channels, thereby ensuring that PII remains secure and confidential within the organization.

Question 3 of 240

An organization conducted a web application vulnerability assessment against the corporate website, and the following output was observed:

Which of the following tuning recommendations should the security analyst share?

    Correct Answer: C

    The Cross-Domain Misconfiguration refers to issues related to how the web application handles cross-origin requests. To mitigate this risk and control access to resources from different origins, it is best to configure the Access-Control-Allow-Origin header to only allow authorized domains. This helps to prevent unauthorized cross-origin access, reducing the potential for security vulnerabilities associated with cross-domain interactions.

Question 4 of 240

Which of the following items should be included in a vulnerability scan report? (Choose two.)

    Correct Answer: D, E

    In a vulnerability scan report, it is essential to include information on the affected hosts and the risk score. The affected hosts section provides details on which systems or devices are vulnerable, allowing for targeted remediation efforts. The risk score evaluates the severity of the vulnerabilities, aiding in prioritization of addressing the most critical issues first. These elements are crucial for understanding both the extent and urgency of the vulnerabilities discovered.

Question 5 of 240

The Chief Executive Officer of an organization recently heard that exploitation of new attacks in the industry was happening approximately 45 days after a patch was released. Which of the following would best protect this organization?

    Correct Answer: A

    A mean time to remediate of 30 days is the best option to protect the organization. This means that the organization aims to fix vulnerabilities within 30 days of their discovery. Given that the exploitation of new attacks occurs approximately 45 days after a patch is released, having a remediation period shorter than 45 days ensures that vulnerabilities are patched before they can be exploited.