A new site has been added to an OPSF network using area 2. Area 2 is connected only to area 1 of this OSPF network. Area 1 is used to connect area 1 to the backbone area 0. Should you expect full connectivity to the networks located in area 2 from area 0 in this scenario?
In OSPF (Open Shortest Path First) networks, all areas must be connected directly to the backbone area (area 0) to ensure full connectivity. Because area 2 in this scenario is only connected to area 1, and not directly to area 0, full connectivity cannot be achieved without additional configuration. A virtual link is required to create a logical connection between area 2 and area 0 through area 1, thereby ensuring that routing information can be properly exchanged across all areas of the network.
Typo? I assume it meant to say "Area 2 is used to connect area 1..." instead of area 1 to area 1. Given that, a virtual link is correct.
No it´s not a typo, since area 2 is connected only to area 1, which in turn is connected to the backbone area 0, area 2 is not directly connected to area 0. To achieve full connectivity, a virtual link is required to connect area 2 to area 0 through area 1.
C is correct