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CPC Exam - Question 56


A 2-year-old male presents with a single ventricular septal defect (VSD) and is in current heart failure. The decision is made to use a patch for the closure. Under general anesthesia, the skin incision is made via median sternotomy. Cardiopulmonary bypass is initiated. Under epicardial guidance, the muscular VSD is located. The guidewire is placed transmyocardially through the VSD. A patch is then delivered over guidance to close the VSD. After successful closure, the guidewire is removed, and the site is repaired. A chest tube is placed in the sternum.

What is the correct code for this procedure?

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TeeChee
Nov 22, 2024

The answer is A

1aa99b1Option: A
Jan 29, 2025

A MOST APPROPIATE REPAIR OF A SINGLE VENTRICULAR SEPTAL DEFECT INVOLVING CARDIO PULOMAINARY BYPASS.

mathunit1Option: B
Mar 11, 2025

Google results say that the answer is B.

1aa99b1Option: B
Mar 20, 2025

B WITH OR WOTHOUT PATCH IS KEY